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Why the quotient rule is the same thing as the ... Posted by: khanacademy
Video duration: 571 seconds Global video hits: 163548 Why the quotient rule is the same thing as the product rule. Introduction to the derivative of e^x, ln x, sin x, cos x, and tan x Related: derivatives, calculus, trigonometry, khan, academy Display Video Comments | Hide Video Comments | Add Comment |
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Latest comments made on this video:
By: LKRP92. on 10 May 12, 11:28:35
Do you yet have a presentation of why the derivative describes the rate? of change of the original function?
By: PhyOSPhyOS. on 01 May 12, 09:48:50
It's not your calculator's fault, but yours. You can't put -2^2 and expect a 4, you have to write it as? (-2)^2 so the power also takes the minus in.
By: soundersbloke. on 29 Apr 12, 06:25:47
all the videos are green. why? i can't see anything?
By: CertainHero. on 29 Apr 12, 04:03:20
So the derivative of my slope (high) on E,? is contingent to the amount of E? hmmmm. "The magic of E" -sal.
By: CertainHero. on 29 Apr 12, 03:58:51
Sal loves E ?
By: CrimsonKunoichi01. on 26 Apr 12, 21:42:19
Are you a genius? ?
By: bkisme. on 01 Apr 12, 03:07:46
I know, right? I? lol'd.
By: mja4201. on 30 Mar 12, 05:04:50
Mildly Lame?
By: Spartan627. on 26 Mar 12, 22:40:12
I actually get kind of jealous when he starts genuinely having fun with these problems... I want math to be? that easy for me :(
By: Tranquilance. on 08 Mar 12, 09:21:34
Basically, the derivative of x^n when? n=0 is nx^(n-1) =0*x^-1 =0
By: Tranquilance. on 08 Mar 12, 09:17:55
What I'm saying is that the coefficient is zero, not the power, the power being zero would make it equal one, but since the coefficient is zero, the number has to equal zero regardless of? the power.
By: s07106. on 05 Mar 12, 21:23:09
You have to change the -5th power in the? beginning when you execute the chain rule when finding the derivative and change it to the -4th power
By: Vonlava. on 02 Mar 12, 06:44:06
that wasnt the? derivative... it was the term itself...
By: Vonlava. on 02 Mar 12, 06:43:06
no...x^0 is? is 0. the derivatives arent both zero..
By: R0adhead. on 01 Mar 12, 16:52:02
My mind has? been Blown
By: Tranquilance. on 28 Feb 12, 10:36:31
Well isn't x^-1 still there? But since the coefficients are -3, -2, -1, the next one is 0. Therefore it's? just x^-1*0=0
By: ragabanation. on 26 Feb 12, 21:18:37
@EvilKillerClownMan actually it's -6?
By: EvilKillerClownMan. on 24 Feb 12, 01:42:02
At 2:46... It looks like it should be to the -4, not the? -5. You may want to check that Sal. Other than that, great job! I watch your videos daily! :) Keep it up!
By: satisfiction. on 20 Feb 12, 09:54:29
"mildy? lame" LOL!
By: jocktheglide. on 19 Feb 12, 07:07:10
yeah im being serious still dont understand it for some odd reason. Ill have to watch it again. In theory on paper how he writes I can understand,? but when I try to punch in some numberson my 84 it does not equal the same.
By: Probesarecool. on 18 Feb 12, 05:40:30
... R U serious? the derivative of lnx is equal to 1/x I would prove it but I forget the? proof
By: jocktheglide. on 13 Feb 12, 09:33:44
I dont see how lnX equals 1/x. I did the ln of 20 on my TI 84 and then did 1/20 didnt equalt he same to me....then again my calc tells me -2? squared is -4.
By: MrJapetheape. on 31 Jan 12, 18:47:25
E just blows his mind @.@ hahaha?
By: ULMORAIS. on 23 Jan 12, 03:50:36
PLEASE, PLEASE, PLEASE? make a list called "the? magic of e", cause this thing is a very tricky thing =/ In fact, the whole part of logarithmic and exponential functions is very difficult and there is not a list about it =( WHO AGREE VOTE UP =)